Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

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gender (and a note about the original query) Main Archives Page2004
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gender (and a note about the original query)
Jul. 21st, 2004   2:14pm

Therefore it is impossible for the gender differentiations to occur until the genitals have already developed.

Thatís a very Freudian concept---assuming that gender has anything to do with our genitals.  Itís also what John Money (another heterosexual pedophile) used to base his studies on and which leads to genital mutilations.  That is,  assuming if the genitals donít match the presumed gender of the child, the child will grow up to be homosexual, have gender identity issues.

Either way, gender and genitals donít really have anything to do with sexual orientation other than on the most basic level---that is defining homosexuality as same gender attraction. When you get out into the real world however, things get a bit muckier.  Think about for a moment---how do you define male and female?  Genitals? Gender Expression? Chromosomes? Going beyond CAH here, if you have a girl born with Complete Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (an XY person who does not respond to testosterone) would you consider her a man because her genes are XY?  Keep in mind that when she is born, she looks very female in regards to her genitals, will most likely identify as female, and given the research out there is likely heterosexual.  So, if you have a two XY individuals in love with eachother, is it a homosexual partnership?

Taking it a step further, many boys born with micropenis are surgically sexually reassigned as a female as an infant.  If left alone, you would have someone who would likely identify solidly as male, and would likely be heterosexual (again, based upon peer-reviewed medical research) .  However, since most are surgically reassigned female and given HRT, you now have someone who may or may not identify in their assigned gender.  If they do, chances are this person will identify as a lesbian based upon gender standards, yet you have someone who is XY female partnering with someone who is probably XX female.  Are they are a lesbian couple?  If making the claim that orientation is a choice, how do you justify it when the ultimate choice was made before this person could contribute to it?

I wish this conversation were taking place two weeks from now because I have some really great articles from a medical magazine devoted to intersex and gender issues but it is under a strict embargo until the 29th so I canít use or quote from it until then.

One note about Dr. S.G.  Default in the womb is female.  The presence or absence of the Y gene, and the assumption that all hormonal receptors and pathways are properly functioning will determine biological male or female (or more if we consider variations such as XXXY, XXY, XYY, etc.)  Speaking of which, while XYY individuals are rare, medically they are referred to as ísuper malesí and the scant research done on these individuals indicates a predisposition to horrible crime such as mass murderers.  Most are undiagnosed (as are many chromosomal variations such as XXY-Klinefelters) and it is not until they find themselves behind bars and some doctor (or good defense atty) thinks to test for it in pursuit of an insanity defense.  often these discoveries go unreported because the media is looking for the story line that is easiest understood and getting into nitty gritty details is not an easy one to tell in a minute thirty or 800 word article. 

Veering even further away from CAH, if you have someone who is XXXY, how can you determine what their gender will be?  You would have someone who likely has a mish-mash in the genital and reproductive department, perhaps ovarian tissue and testicular tissue (not always functioning and very possibly streak tissue).  Doctors will often attempt to surgically assigned a sex while presupposing a gender---usually it goes towards female as the surgery is easier).  Using a chromosomal basis and hormonal basis, you could end up with someone who is a homosexual  no matter how you look at it (one of the reasons the FMA is a horribly thought out concept) .

So after all this blather, letís get back to a really basic question---defining what exactly homosexuality and heterosexuality is.  We can rule out out chromosomes, we can rule out procreation since many unaffected women and men in relationships do not have children for any number of reasons.  Is it purely a gender thing? If so, it is it perceived gender (how you see me) or gender expression (how I see myself)?  What if gender is attempted to be hormonally created by the administration of HRT without the consent of the child along with social reinforcement? (I know, this a bit of an oxymoron given my opposition to such practice but fact is, it is still attempted by many medical professionals)

Oh, and Alice, the most current studies do not indicate an increased homosexuality rate among NCCAH.  The most recent research shows SW CAH to have the highest incidence, SV CAH to have a slight increase (but more gender identity issues) , and LOCAH to be within unaffected norms.






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